Question & Answer
 

Send us an inquiry concerning any Bible question or questions that you have, and we will post your Bible questions and our Bible answers on this page. You will receive no e-mail from us that you do not ask for. Send your question to Bro.Lary@gmail.com

 

"For whatsoever things that were written
aforetime were written for OUR learning,
that we through patience and comfort of
the scriptures might have hope" (Rom. 15:4).

 

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Comment:
You might be interested in this online commentary "Putting God on Trial- The Biblical Book of Job". The entire commentary is online.

This commentary has been highly praised by some of the world's leading authorities on Job: Clines, Habel, and Janzen and the Review of Biblical Literature. It is noted on a number of other websites: Ralph Klein's Old Testament, Early Jewish Writings, Textweek, iTanakh, Wabash Centre, and Biblical Studies.org.

It was written by a Christian Canadian criminal defense lawyer and focused heavily on the lawsuit drama in the Book of Job. It argues that the book is saying undeserved evil may be morally necessary not for punishment or for character development but for the creation of a completely selfless love of men and women for God. This would be the criminal defense of necessity: God may be causally responsible for the evil that befell Job and befalls us, but not morally blameworthy for that evil.
Robert Sutherland

Answer:
Hi Robert,
Thanks for the note about Job. I'll have to look at the site a little more when I have time. Job is one of my top two or three favorite books in the Bible. There sure are some powerful truths illustrated in the book, and several years ago the holy Ghost allowed me to see what is the overall main point to the book. So simple that it is easily overlooked. That is to "Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment." Job's friends certainly fell into that trap didn't they? Take care now.
Sincerely,
Lary Hale

Comment:
We agree on much. I call that judgment by appearances premature judgment.
(Job 13:7-10) Job's friends, Elihu and many a reader are guilty of it. Job
is not.
Robert

Answer:
Amen Robert.

Question:
Hello friend,
I happened to come across your website and was a little troubled by your explanation of what it means to be born again. If I understood it right you believe that a person is not born again until they are baptized in the Holy Spirit and speak with tongues. First I would like to say that I agree that the
baptism in the Holy Spirit and speaking in tongues is important in order to have power for ministry. But I think the scripture is clear that we are saved by
grace through. faith in the finished work of Jesus' cruxifiction and ressurection. Eph 2:8 I agree that there is overwhelming proof that the initial evidence of being baptized in the Holy Spirit is speaking in tongues. But I think it is also equally clear that the disciples received the "new birth" in John 20:21 when Jesus breathed on them the Holy Spirit and gave them the ministry of reconciliation. I understand your zeal to see people walking in the fulness of God's Spirit but would caution you against trying to put your finger on faith. Paul said faith is the substance of things hoped for the evidence of things not seen. Jesus repeatedly spoke of the blessing on those believed without seeing. And we know that apart from faith it is impossible to please God.
God bless you in your studies,
Saleim

Answer:
Dear Saleim,
Thanks for your inquiry/response to our web site. Your perception is correct: The baptism of the holy Ghost is the new birth experience. To address your comments in as short of order as possible, let me begin by pointing out John 16:7, where Jesus plainly stated that no one could receive the Spirit until after He went away, which obviously is referring to Him leaving the earth by means of ascending back into Heaven. To add to that, in regard to faith in Christ, Jesus stated in John 7:37-39 that true faith in Him would result in the receiving the Spirit, which the same passage states could not be received until after He was "glorified," meaning when He went back into Heaven and received from the Father the glory that was His from before the foundation of the world - Immortality (Jn. 17:24). Though there are many passages, yet two very key and plainly stated scriptures show us that it is receiving the Spirit of God that takes
our sins away and makes us a member of His family (I Cor. 6:11; Rom. 8:9). Not only so, but one even more key sripture informs us that it is the baptism of the Spirit that puts anyone into the overall assembly of God's people, which is the body of Christ (I Cor. 12:13).

As far as the finished work of Christ, it was absolutely not finished until after He ascended back "into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us: (Heb. 9:24). And why did He have to go back into the Heavenly tabernacle to appear for us? Because "when he had by himself purged our sins, (He) sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:" (Heb. 1:3). And this: "but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared (in Heaven, as stated above) to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself" (Heb. 9:26). You see, Jesus is the new testament High Priest, whose job it is to make atoning sacrifice for the sins of those who present themselves wholeheartedly in repentance and faith for the same. Hebrews 8:4 goes with all of the above by telling us that Jesus could not be a priest while He was yet on earth because the law was still in effect while He was
still on earth, which included the Levitical priesthood, which His priesthood was not of (Lev. 7:14). So the point is, Jesus could not make atoning sacrifice (offering) for the sins of those who initially believed on Him until after He went back into Heaven to do so, even as the Levitical high priest could only make the atonement once a year when he went into the holy of holies (Heb. 9:7). Jesus' suffering is what He was referring to when He said "It is finished."

These things are the reason why His final instructions to His followers before He ascended, were all about them waiting for the holy Ghost to come unto them (Acts 1:4,5). It was because He wanted to be certain that they did not miss the entire point for His coming, which point was also solely projected by John the Baptist, who was sent to introduce Jesus to Israel (Mk. 1:6-8; Jn. 1:33). John 20:21 that you mentioned, was a command to receive the holy Ghost, but as the above scriptures make perfectly clear, that reception could not be realized until after Jesus ascended back to Heaven. Acts 2:4 was the birth of the body of Christ, whereby those first believers received the new birth experience by the washing away of their sins. I could go on with much further detailed scriptural confirmation of this truth, but a lot of what I could say is contained in the pages of my website. I would encourage you, and any honest seeker of truth to study
further on the site, with honest and willing prayer to supplement it. The result of those two ingredients can only be a wonderful deliverance from the traditions and doctrines of men which make up all of Christianity; and a newfound understanding of the real truth of God, which cannot be found anywhere in Christianity. Amen. Thanks again for the letter Saleim. I'm always open and willing to engage honest, humble hearts, in the pursuit of the true fellowship of God's Spirit with His people.
Sincerely,
Lary Hale

Question:
Hi Larry
I would like to ask you a question, in regard to the people of Samaria. When great signs & wonders were taking place though Phillip, but could not impart the Holy Spirt.Peter & John came down & layed hands on them & they received the most wonderful gift The Holy Ghost .I live in Brisbane Australia & have seen very little of any one receiving the Holy Spirt when tongues, (a language) supernaturally came out, when they were not coached. My own original experience happened long ago when I was 14 years old. My parents were strong spirit filled believers, & I didn't like going to church much, I was more interested in the world & it's pleasures. One night a paster Young came to our little church in poor area where we lived.He preached on the baptism of the Holy Spirt, half way though I was shaking uncontrollably. The paster could see God was moving so he called up those who wanted to receive, he asked if I was saved, I said no so I repented he layed hands on me & I could feel this filling of Gods love that started at my feet & moved up my body, it was the most wonderful thing! it reached my chest & I could'nt hold it in I bursted out in another language. I did'nt shut up for hours. about 15 young people were born again that night. For the next 3 months or so I loved everything I was completly changed over night ( BORN AGAIN ) Sadly I went back to the world, Dad wasn't worried he had a word from God. I was 41 when I returned, thank God for parents that pray for us .Anyway thats another story. Back to my question, where are the Peter's & the John's of our time& is there much movment that you know of ?
Thanks Larry, Thank you Jesus !
Colin.

Answer:
Greetings Colin in The Name of Jesus!
First of all, thanks much for sharing your wonderful testimony of the power of God's love and grace in your life. Those are the kinds of things that I love to hear about and find so uplifting. To see someone who is focused on the real goods of EXPERIENCING God for themselves, is a beautiful and refreshing thing to me! Your question is a very good one, and the short answer is that there are no Peters or Johns in the body of Christ today because God's people would not be able to bear them if they were here. That is not to say that there aren't true men of God. But we are living in the darkest hour in the history of God's people, and of the world for that matter, and the true move of God's Spirit is very small because the body of Christ has only allowed for it to be very small. God's dear people have been actually taught away from the experience that first put them into the body of Christ, as you described (I Cor. 12:13). The doctrines that prevail over all of the people of the Lord are against the will, truth, and power of God, howbeit in subtle form.

The only move of the power of God is through the same holy Ghost that you were filled with that night long ago, and that you were renewed in at age 41. The Spirit of God is the only connection, relationship, etc., that any of us can have with God. Everything should be focused on experiencing the vast nature of God through the Spirit, because the Spirit is the only one here in the "name" of Jesus, which is to say, in His stead (Jn. 14:26). The power of the holy Ghost is the only way any of us can hope to overcome the nature of sin and sinning, which is what is required of us by God if we hope to inherit eternal life (Acts 1:8; Rom. 6:12,13; Gal. 5:19-21; Eph. 5:3-7; Titus 2:11,12; Rev. 21:7. etc.). And the power of the holy Ghost is
what initially cleanses of from sin and gives us new birth into the kingdom of God (I Cor. 6:11; Jn. 3:5,6; I Cor. 12:13).

So when we are taught that something other than, before, or apart from the baptism of the holy Ghost is what gives us remission of sins and new birth, we are being taught away from the very power of God that actually redeems us from sin, and is able to keep us that way. "Getting Saved," "accepting the Lord," "praying the sinner's prayer," "confessing Jesus," etc. are not biblically supported; but yet these are the kinds of things that God's people have been taught universally as being the new birth experience. So what has happened is that the true new birth experience (the Spirit baptism) has been disesteemed in the hearts and minds of believers and would-be believers, because it has been relegated to a secondary, and not totally necessary experience. By disesteeming the power of God through these doctrines, and many others, we have seen the evaporation of God's power, love, and unity from the Congregation of God; and few even give it a second thought, because they are also being taught that we are living in a great
outpouring of the Spirit. Those who are dissatisfied and honestly confused about what is going on in the body of Christ, are the ones that are likely to hear God's call of "Come out of her my people," and get back to the first works of humility, honesty, repentance, faith, perseverance, and willingness to just be and stay filled with the glory of God, and be led thereby into learning how to walk in the Spirit, which is really what the simplicity of the Gospel is all about (Gal. 5:16, Col. 2:6,10).

Yes there is much "effort" on the part of God's people to be what it feels it should be, including "teaching" people how to speak in tongues, as you mentioned, which of course is erroneous. And there are many other such things as well. But God also is still allowing humble, honest, seeking hearts to experience the reality of His power and love as He always has. Colin, if you just stay with your love for the true experiences that you know in God, He will lead you in the direction that you need to go in. I would like to encourage you to thoroughly go over the many articles of truth on our website, and you're more than welcome to correspond at any time. Thanks again for writing, and may God bless you and yours in a big way!
Sincerely,
Lary

Question:
1. What takes place when one's converted to Christ?
2. What is a converted sinner saved from?
3. In a connection with Christian  baptism, what is washed away?
4. In whose name are believers to be baptized?
5. What is the nature of God's law?
6. What is the essential principle of the law of God?

Delan

Answer:
Hi Delan,
I don't know whether this series of e-mails is intended to be a quiz for me, questions you really want answered, or some kind of gag. Anyway I will treat them as sincere questions, since that is all I deal with.

(What takes place when one's converted to Christ?)
http://byonespirit.com/faq.htm#q2

http://byonespirit.com/remission.htm

(What is a converted sinner saved from?)
http://byonespirit.com/faq.htm#q3

(In a connection with Christian baptism, what is washed away?)
http://byonespirit.com/fromjesus.htm

(In whose name are believers to be baptized?)
http://byonespirit.com/remission.htm

(What is the nature of God's law?)
http://byonespirit.com/loveofgod.htm

(What is the essential principle of the law of God?)
http://byonespirit.com/loveofgod.htm

Well, whether quiz, questions, or gag; there are the correct answers to your questions if you care to seek them out. If you desire to understand these things further, you're more than welcome to write back. I'm always available to humble, honest hearts who are seeking the way of truth.
Sincerely,
Lary Hale

 

Question:                          
Hi, Lary.  I came across your site tonight, and something is troubling me about the concept of speaking in tongues in public worship and prayer.  I saw in your question/answer section that in your meetings, some will pray silently, others in tongues aloud, and others quietly in tongues.  I haven't completely made up my mind yet about whether or not speaking in tongues is acceptable or necessary.  I was brought up in the Baptist church, so this doctrine is a bit foreign to me, and I am prayerfully seeking the Scriptures, trying to look past my biases and my upbringing.  Let's assume for the sake of argument that I agree with your view of speaking in tongues and the Baptism of the Holy Spirit.  What troubles me is this:  "If anyone speaks in a tongue, two--or at the most three--should speak, one at a time, and someone must interpret.  If there is no interpreter, the speaker should keep quiet in the church and speak to himself and God." (I Corinthians 14: 27-28)  I don't want to sound antagonistic, but if it is true that you wish to examine the Scriptures outside of the context of traditional Chrisitianity, how can you justify the kind of meeting you described?  I could find nothing in the context of these verses to negate them or give them a different meaning.  Again, I do not wish to be antagonistic, but to discern the truth from the Scriptures,
April

Answer:
Hi April,
Thank you for taking the time to write. Your question is a good one and it sounds to me that you are honest and only want what is right, meaning what is from God. I don't interpret anything you've said as antagonistic or anything like that. In I Cor. 14, the Apostle Paul was dealing with an assembly that was zealous of the things of the Spirit, but were going about things in a disorderly manner. In this case he was talking about people that were actually ADDRESSING the congregation in tongues, in the same manner that someone would get up and preach or testify to a congregation. That is why he stated that they should speak one at a time, and only two or three of them at that; again ONLY if there was an interpretation, so that the congregation could be edified. As he said, if I were to get up and start SPEAKING TO a congregation in tongues, and there was no
interpretation following, then I would be as a barbarian to them because no
one would know what I was saying to them.

On the other hand, if the Spirit moves us to pray, then everyone is going to PRAY TO God in whatever way they feel comfortable with. When we pray, we are not praying for one another to hear us, nor should we be focused on or listening to what someone else is praying; seeing we all SHOULD BE praying with our minds and focus ON THE LORD. If someone comes into one of our meetings, that hasn't been around the Spirit before, whether they see someone praying in the Spirit (tongues - I Cor. 14:14) or in their own words, or even silently; the impression that will be left with them is that these folks really mean what they're praying about, and its not a formality with them.

Paul made the statement about prayer in the spirit and in the understanding also, as I referenced above, simply to show that believers have the capacity to pray either way; and therefore they have the capacity to address the congregation in language that can be understood, and should do so unless a message in tongues is interpreted. In fact, with twenty five years of experiencing the holy Ghost in my life, I often find more effectiveness by praying in tongues, BECAUSE no one else can understand it. It actually makes it more private and less of a temptation for others to just be listening to what I am saying, or for my mind to wonder what
someone else thinks about what I'm praying. It truly is less distracting to others who are trying to pray themselves, to not be able to understand the next person's words. Congregational prayer is a totally different situation than one or even two people addressing the congregation in tongues as if they were speaking a message to the people.

I might also add that I have experienced, witnessed, and ministered many miraculous and glorious things in the Spirit of God through praying for people and with people, in tongues. Its all a matter of what's coming from the heart. If that part is in line with God, then praying in the Spirit only enhances the effect of the prayer. Not only that, but the Spirit ALWAYS prays through us (meaning in tongues) according to the will of God (Rom. 8:26,27). Of course praying in one's own words is great too, when the Spirit is leading that way. I hope this helps some. I know if you keep seeking the Lord with an open and willing heart, He will show you the way to go in. May God bless you in a mighty way!
Sincerely,
Lary Hale

Question:
Hi, Lary.  April again here with another question.  If speaking in tongues is the sign of (and therby the requirement for) what is traditionally thought of as "salvation" or eternal life, then why does Paul say in Romans 10?9-10 "That if you confess with your mouth, 'Jesus is Lord,' and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.  For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified, and it is with your mouth that you confess and are saved."  Although baptism of the Holy Spirit is definitely mentioned in Scripture, it is not mentioned here as a requirement for salvation.  Another Scripture that seems to contradict your teaching: "EXAMINE YOURSELVES to see whether you are in the faith; TEST YOURSELVES.  Do you not realize that Christ Jesus is in you--unless, of course, you fail the test?"  (II Corinthians 13:5, emphasis added)  Although I agree with you whole-heartedly that only God can truly know a man's heart (meaning that we cannot judge others, because we do not know their hearts), Paul is clearly stating here that we are to examine our own hearts, so that we can know that our faith is sincere.  He goes on to say in verse 6, "And I trust that you will discover that we have not failed the test."  The Corinthians were demanding proof that Christ was speaking through Paul.  If it is true that the only way to determine one's true faith is by the sign of speaking in tongues, why wouldn't Paul just refer to that as a measure of faith, instead of instructing the Corinthians to examine he and themselves?  I appreciate your input on this.

Answer:
Hi Again April,
Once again, thanks much for writing and sending good questions along. Rom. 10:9,10 is one of, if not THE MOST misused passage of scripture being used
today. The Apostle was speaking to, and instructing people, WHO WERE ALREADY IN THE BODY OF CHRIST. That particular message was the new testament equivalent of Deut. 30:10-14, which also was spoken to people who were already in covenant with God. In both of these instances, these men of God
were admonishing and exhorting GOD'S PEOPLE to continue in the faith that they had begun in. This is how that in both cases they (Moses and Paul) could say that "the word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart." The word was in THEIR mouths and hearts because they had received it and known it for some time already. You can also see the same apostle exhort the Corinthian congregation in the exact same manner, with a little bit different wording (I Cor. 15:1-4) To use this passage of scripture in Rom. 10 as an evangelical call to sinners as a means of being born again, is to completely and perilously strip the passage of its true and divine context.

So the real issue is how these people got into the body of Christ, and how that
anyone has ever become a member of that body; and that is by the baptism of the
holy Ghost (I Cor. 12:13 - Paul) The true holy Ghost baptism is the same one that John the Baptist said that Jesus would baptize with (Mk. 1:6-8), and the same one that Jesus commanded His followers to wait for when He ascended back to Heaven (Acts 1:4,5). As I'm sure you know, when that baptism came, everyone who received it spoke in tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance (Acts 2:4).
 
And every time that the details of HOW someone became a member of the body of Christ, are broken down for us to see in the book of Acts, they always spoke in tongues likewise. Although it is only a small part of the understanding about
speaking in tongues at the new birth, the account in Acts 10:44-46 very powerfully demonstrates that this is how the apostles and early elders were able to determine when someone had received the Spirit. And without receiving the Spirit there is no new birth (Jn. 3:5; Rom. 8:9), or remission of sins (I Cor. 6:11). God has never changed this initial sign of receiving the holy Ghost, though man has certainly done so to his own confusion and harm. April, as I said, these are good questions that you have asked, and they carry eternal weight; so the only way you want to be utterly assured of the answers is to really seek God earnestly, humbly, openly, perseveringly; and without reservation. He is well able and more than willing to show you the truth, and He knows how to let you know WHEN He shows you. Your correspondence is always welcome. I also send tapes,
cd's and/or dvd's of our radio or tv broadcasts, or our home Prayer Meeting/Bible Studies, free of charge if you think you would like to have any of these. Once again, may the Lord bless and enrich you in every way known and unknown!
Sincerely,
Lary

Answer:
Hi Again April,
In going back over your second e-mail that you sent, I realized that I didn't say anything about your question on "Examine yourselves, whether you be in the faith..." Again, he was speaking to people who had already been in the assembly of God's people for some time, meaning that they had already been baptized by one Spirit into one body (I Cor. 12:13). He referred again to this issue in the following passage: "But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body. For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep. For if we would judge ourselves, we should not be judged" (I Cor. 11:28-31). In this passage Paul was warning the congregation that if they came together and partook of the communion of the holy Ghost and the word of God with sin in their lives, they would be chastened of the Lord for doing so, so that they would learn to live in obedience and not be damned with the rest of the world. In both places he was admonishing believers to take inventory of themselves to be certain they were not retaining any kind of sin in their lives. Though they were born again through the Spirit baptism, they or anyone are not continuing in the faith unless they are continuing in righteousness and true holiness, meaning pureness of heart, or being
without sin (Mat. 5:8; Heb. 12:14; Tit. 2:11,12; I Jn. 3:3; etc.).

This also is what Jude was referring to in saying that God's people needed to
"earnestly contend for the faith that was once delivered unto the saints." Proving oneself of being in the faith is not a matter of deciding whether or not one believes that Jesus is the Lord, but rather whether or not one is continuing in what the faith of Christ is all about - True, or inner holiness. On a mass scale, this is what Paul was prophesying of when he said that "In the latter times some will depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits and doctrines of devils" (I Tim. 4:1). That is exactly what has happened on a universal scale now. "Christianity," which is comprised of doctrines that in effect say that sin is taken out of our lives by what Jesus accomplished, and even though we still have to live with sin, we're not accountable for our sins as long as we "believe in Jesus." But the true "one faith" of Christ "that was once delivered unto the saints" clearly states that sin is LITERALLY taken out of our lives AS A RESULT of our faith in Christ, by the holy Ghost baptism (Tit. 3:5; I Cor. 6:11; Heb. 10:4; Heb. 9:13,14; etc.).

Not only so, but to truly be found "in the faith," after this new birth experience, believers are required by God to continue without sin (Rom. 6:1-4,12-15; Tit. 2:11,12; Col. 3:5-10; Rom. 8:12-14; Gal. 5:19-25; etc.). Of course continuing in holiness can also include honest, true repentance if one does fail (I Jn. 1:8-10 & I Jn. 2:1). Nonetheless overcoming sin and all of its works, and being perfected in holiness is what the faith is all about, not just believing that Jesus is the Lord. Anyone can say and even think that they believe that Jesus is the Lord, but it will never do anyone any good without receiving the EXPERIENCE that is the result of truly believing on Jesus according to HIS terms (Jn. 7:37-39). And even receiving the holy Ghost baptism won't account for anything at the judgment unless one has availed himself of the power of that baptism and allowed God to
live through him, by keeping sin literally and truly out of his heart and soul (Heb. 6:4-8; Heb. 10:26-29; II Pet. 2:20-22). Anyway, I hope that helps some. Any other questions that are on your mind are welcome.
Sincerely,
Lary

Comment:
Thank you for your response, and yes, it did make a lot of sense to me.  I do agree with you that many in mainstream Christianity believe that they are no longer accountable for their sin as long as they believe in Jesus.  We both know that even the demons believe that Jesus is Lord...and tremble.  The church I was brought up in taught that to become "saved" or "a Christian" (basically how to get to Heaven), one needs to first realize and admit that they are a sinner, and confess that sin to God and repent.  I was taught, and believe, that repentance is not the same thing as apologizing.  It literally means to turn around.  So I think that you and I are on the same page, that we are commanded not only to confess our sin and believe, but to turn our lives around, away from sin, and "give God the steering wheel" so to speak.  I was also taught that when one is truly in Christ, there will still be temptations, and that none of us are righteous (Rom. 3:23), so <EM>sins </EM>will still occur.  But if the Holy Spirit truly lives within us, we will have no choice other than to desire a life of holiness, pleasing to God, and the Holy Spirit will convict us of our sin, if and when it does occur.  I was taught the concept of "once saved, always saved," but at the same time, there are consequences for our actions, and there still will be judgement for our sins, and the Holy Spirit is continually working in our lives.  If someone were to have a "salvation" experience, but showed no desire to live a holy life, we could assume that their salvation was not sincere, because otherwise they would be turning away from a life of sin--not running to it.  So far, unless I am misunderstanding you, it seems that they way I was brought up parallels what you believe about 80 or 90%.  The concept of baptism in the Holy Spirit is a new concept for me, however.  I recently started attending a non-denominational church where this is encouraged for all believers, and speaking in tongues is seen as an initial evidence of this baptism, if not THE evidence.  That is what brought me to your site.  I love my parents, and I don't want to believe differently than they out of a spirit of rebellion.  But I realize that thousands of people are brought up in sincere, but false or incomplete beliefs.  So logically, it is possible that what I was brought up believing is not entirely true, although those who taught me were sincere and good-hearted.  I am now entering a season of my life where I know the Holy Spirit is tugging at me, calling me back to Him, and urging me to pore over this Scriptures, in search of truth.  I am not completely sure that I agree with everything that you believe in, but I appreciate you taking the time to listen to me and respond to my questions without being condemning or condescending.  I pray that God will bless you and use you to advance His Kingdom.  Blessed be the name of the Lord!
April

Question:
When Jesus told Nicodemus in John 3:3 that "Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God" and later in verse 5 "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God", is Jesus stating to receive salvation you need to be baptized in water and receive the Holy Ghost?

Answer:
Greetings,
Thanks for your inquiry and good question. The short answer is no. The more
detailed answer is as follows: "Jesus answered, verily, verily, I say unto thee, except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the Kingdom of God" (Jn. 3:5). He immediately explained what He meant by saying "that which is born of the flesh (in a watery womb) is flesh (the natural man); and that which is born of the Spirit (meaning God's Spirit) is spirit" (our spirit being). So the first birth is obviously the natural birth ("of the flesh"), and the
born again experience takes place if and when our spirit is "born of the (God's) Spirit" by faith in Christ.

Its very often the case in scripture, that a scripture is explained by the scripture immediately following. That certainly is the case here as Jesus left no question about what He was talking about in regard to being born of water and of the Spirit. He simply explained it with His following statement. The new birth is the baptism of the holy Ghost, evidenced initially by speaking with other tongues. Water baptism is not a factor, as it was fulfilled and subsequently replaced by Jesus' baptism with the Spirit. You're welcome to send any other questions along that might be on your mind.
Sincerely,
Lary Hale

P.S. If you are at all confused about my statement that water baptism is not a factor (in the new birth, or in the Gospel at all), you may refer to the following bible study on our site that gives a fuller scriptural explanation of this truth:

The Worship of God in Spirit and in Truth

Question:
Why did Jesus command the eleven to baptize after he rose?

Answer:
If you are talking about Mat. 28:19, there's no doubt Jesus was talking about the holy Ghost baptism. The Spirit baptism is the only baptism that can be administered truly "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy Ghost," because the holy Ghost was sent in the name of Jesus (Jn. 14:26), and Jesus came in His Father's name (Jn. 5:43). The baptism of the holy Ghost is the only true new testament baptism because it is the fulfillment of water baptism. Water baptism was an old covenant ordinance (Mat. 5:17 with Mat. 3:15) and was only meant to lead the way to the baptism that truly removes sin from the heart (The Spirit baptism). This understanding wasn't fully realized all at once but the scriptures bear forth that it was understood by the apostles eventually (I Cor. 1:17; Eph. 4:5; I Pet. 3:21). The reference to I Pet. 3:21 demonstrates that Peter
understood that the baptism that saves one from sin is the baptism that came AS THE RESULT of the resurrection of Jesus Christ, as he stated. I hope that helps to clarify the issue for you some. You would probably be helped with this topic more by studying over the bible study link that I left for you in my last  response. Let me know if there's anything else I can help with.
Sincerely,
Lary

Question:
If Jesus was talking about the baptism of the spirit in Matthew 28:19,20 why did He ask the eleven to bapize all nations with the Holy Ghost? Can man administer or baptize someone with the Holy Ghost?

Answer:
Can man heal? Or can man raise the dead? Can man cast out devils? Of himself man can do none of these things, but as an instrument in God's hands he can do all of these things. Of course it is God doing the works, but He has chosen to allow man to do these things, and other things like these, through Him. Look at the following commandment that Jesus gave to His disciples: "Heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils" (Mat. 10:8). So what we see here is the same thing as Him sending them to baptize with the Spirit after they would receive it themselves at Pentecost. The holy Ghost baptism can be administered through the laying on of hands, even as healing can be administered by the laying on of hands. We see the evidence of this in the Bible, and I have first hand knowledge and experience of these things as well; and so do many others today. Even Jesus stated that He could do nothing of Himself, but that the Father did the works through Him (Jn. 5:19; Jn. 8:28).
Thanks Again,
Lary

Question:
Since the Holy Ghost baptism can be administered through the laying on of hands, why didn't the 120 in the upper room on the day of Pentcost just lay hands on one another to receive the Holy Ghost(Acts 1:2-4)?

Answer:
First of all someone must have the holy Ghost in order to lay hands on someone else to receive it. None of them had it yet. They were the first to receive the Spirit, and they all received it at once from Heaven, as God determined for it to be done. Secondly, like healing, the Holy Ghost can be received by the laying on of hands, but that isn't the only way it can be received. It can be received directly from Heaven, apart from the laying on of hands (Acts 10:44-46), even as healing can be received the same way (Acts 5:15).
Lary 

Question:
Who administers the Holy Ghost, God or man?

Answer:
Actually we've already covered that ground. Look at my answer two e-mails ago. Just curious, are you really interested in the truth, or are you just taking the long way of trying to prove some point? If its the latter, feel free to come to the point and we'll settle up on it. If you're interested in knowing the truth of a matter, then just proceed as you feel fit. I'm always open and available to anyone who is honestly and humbly seeking for the truth of God.
Lary

Question:
Actually you did not answer my question (on who administers the Holy Spirit God or man) because I didn't ask it yet. You stated two emails ago (from this one) "It can be received directly from Heaven, apart from the laying on of hands, even as healing can be received the same way". I am interested in the truth and do not need to prove a point, for I am only asking questions. Now, I ask you once again who administers the Holy Ghost God or man (and please, I would really appreciate it if you didn't answer with "I don't want to repeat myself" or "refer to this" I am asking you to answer the question in this email) ?

Answer:
In all due respect, I'm not questioning your intelligence, but nevertheless we have covered that ground. But I'll be happy to cover it again if you like. Here is one of your questions from what is now three e-mails ago:

"If Jesus was talking about the baptism of the spirit in Matthew 28:19,20 why did He ask the eleven to bapize all nations with the Holy Ghost? Can man administer or baptize someone with the Holy Ghost?"

And here is the answer that I gave to that question:

"Can man heal? Or can man raise the dead? Can man cast out devils? Of himself man can do none of these things, but as an instrument in God's hands he can do all of these things. Of course it is God doing the works, but He has chosen to allow man to do these things, and other things like these, through Him. Look at the following commandment that Jesus gave to His disciples: "Heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils" (Mat. 10:8). So what we see here is the same thing as Him sending them to baptize with the Spirit after they would receive it themselves at Pentecost. The holy Ghost baptism can be administered through the laying on of hands, even as healing can be administered by the laying on of hands. We see the evidence of this in the Bible, and I have first hand knowledge and experience of these things as well; and so do many others today. Even Jesus stated that He could do nothing of Himself, but that the Father did the works through Him (Jn. 5:19; Jn. 8:28)."

So the answer to your question is still the same. Nobody does ANYTHING
without God, but seeing that God has ordained some to administer His Spirit and the gifts thereof, there ARE chosen vessels who certainly administer that which is of God, namely His Spirit. But it doesn't happen unless God has determined it and is causing it to happen. I hope that makes it somewhat clearer.
Sincerely,
Lary

Question:
Thank you for answering my question. Since we know that God administers the Holy Ghost, we also know that Jesus speaks of what also must be done to be "born again", "saved", or a "christian". In John 3:5 "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God". In this scripture Jesus doesn't put more importance on one than the other, nor does He speak of any specific order it should be done in. In verse 7 Jesus sums it up with "...Ye must be born again". It's safe to say in the scripture I just stated that man must be baptized of water and of spirit. This is shown in Acts 2:38 When Peter, who was given the command by Jesus to baptize on the mount with the eleven, states "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost". In this scripture when Peter mentions "baptized in name of Jesus", he speaks of baptism in water; not of spirit. He states after water baptism, "...and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost". This is how I know: Acts 10:44-48 "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter, Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we? And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord". If in Matthew 28:19,20 Jesus commands them to baptize nations with the Holy Ghost in Jesus name, why does Peter baptize the men in water in Jesus name after they have been baptized with the Holy Ghost by God?

Answer:
Its really an interesting passage of scripture that you've chosen to highlight, because this passage more than any other actually nullifies the point that you're trying to make about water baptism. Jesus worked CONTRARY to Peter's words in Acts 2:38 when He baptized Cornelius and his household with the holy Ghost BEFORE Peter was able to baptize them in water. The reason He did this was because He was demonstrating that for the Gentiles, the works (ceremonial ordinances) of the law (including water baptism) were not to be applied, because Jesus had already fulfilled the law, and the Gentiles were never under the law to begin with. Unlike the Jews, who were brought to faith in Christ by means of the law (Gal.3:24), the Gentiles were given the direct route to Christ through the simplicity of faith. When Peter asked "Can any man forbid water...?" he was genuinely puzzled because he realized that Jesus had worked contrary to the previously established order. As I said, God was establishing that the Gospel to the Gentiles was to be a direct route to Christ through faith, which faith produced in Cornelius and family the experience that Jesus lived and died for, and rose again for - The baptism of the holy Ghost!

Also you're e-mail shows that you haven't really examined the right answers that I have provided for you, or studied the material that I suggested. If you had, you would not be going on with this fruitless point that you're trying to prove about water baptism. Please don't bother to respond to this e-mail because I will only delete it without reading it, as I do not have time to entertain pointless debates. My time is much taken by helping those who are willing to learn the truth.

 

Question:
what type of relationship does the bible say that pharoh and joseph had. Father son brother etc.James M. Evans

Answer:
Dear James,
Joseph said that God had made him "a father to Pharaoh," but Pharaoh was still greater in Egypt than Joseph, being the one who apppointed Joseph to be "lord of all his house and ruler throughout the land of Egypt" (Gen.45:8; Gen.41:40-44;). The more significant aspect of that relationship is the perfect shadow-type of God the Father, and His Son Jesus Christ; in which case Pharaoh is the type of the Father, being the greater and being the One Who appointed the other to his office. Thanks for the inquiry.
Sincerely,
Lary Hale

Comment:
Hello,
The following syllogism demonstrates that water baptism is not necessary for
salvation:
a. If one has the Holy Spirit they are saved. You can not have the Holy Spirit and be lost. Romans 8:9; Galatians 4:6 and 1 John 4:13 are clear on this.
b. Cornelius "received" the Holy Spirit before he was baptized (Acts 10:47).
c. Therefore Cornelius was already saved before he was baptized.

To be baptized "in the name of Jesus" simply means to be baptized in His
"authority". It doesn't necessarily mean that only His name is to be pronounced when baptizing someone. David came "in the name of YHWH" in 1 Samuel 17:45 but that doesn't mean David is YHWH.

Finally, Jesus is not the same Person as the Father. Zechariah 13:7 calls Jesus
God's "Associate" (NASB) or "fellow" (KJV). The meaning of this Hebrew word means someone else besides yourself. So it does not refer to them being the same Person.
Marc

Answer:
Dear Marc,
I'm wondering if you meant to send this e-mail to someone else, and somehow
sent it to me instead. If somehow it was intended for me, I have to admit that I've somehow missed the point. Nonetheless I thought I'd send along these links so that you can take a closer look at your points on being saved - (a.) & (c.): When and how is a person saved? and The Devil's Oldest Trick If I was the intended recipient of your e-mail, then I thank you for writing and I hope the links can clear some things up for you.
Sincerely,
Lary Hale


Question:
A question was asked in bible class can the devil bless you? And the answer given was that he could bless you with his type of blessing but all devine blessings come from God. Is this a true answer. Do we call the things that look good that are not of God do we call them blessings from the devil?

Plese answer soon


Answer:
Hi Jana (I assume),
Your question is a really good one, and I hope that we can discuss the answer to it in more detail. At the moment I am short on time, but I would like to give you the short answer now. The Devil has NEVER possessed the authority or power to bless OR to curse. To believe that he can do either is actually a form of idolatry, becuse it attributes power to him that in reality belongs only to God (Jer. 10:5; I Sam. 2:5,6; Isa. 45:7; Deut. 28:1,2,15; Num. 23:7,8; etc.). In attributing power to him that belongs only to God, grants him his age-old wish, which is to "be LIKE the Most High" (Isa. 14:14). 

The real issue that your question addresses is the fact that GOD often times CURSES people by giving them what they want, when what they want is against His will. When the Isrealites weren't content with the manna that God had supplied for them to eat, and were determined to have their own way, the scripture says that God "gave them their request; but sent LEANNESS into their soul" (Psm. 106:15 and also read Num. ch. 11). Please read these scriptural references, and also the links that I'm leaving for you below. I believe they will really help you. Thanks for writing, and I hope we can continue the discussion. It can be a very good one and very powerful in divine truth.
Sincerely,
Lary


Is Satan The One Who is responsible...?
Is financial and earthly abundance in the lives...?

Question:
Lary, How do I receive the baptism in the holy ghost? Thank You, Aaron Curry

Answer:
Hi Aaron,
Just come humbly before God, and be willing to turn your entire self over to Him, and pray believing that He wants you to have it. Believe me, He does want you to have it. Most people do not understand that the baptism of the holy Ghost is the new birth, the only experience that takes away your sins. If one doesn't understand how necessary the experience is, they are not likely to feel that they desperately need it, and therefore will be unlikely to seek it with earnest desperation. Jesus said in regard to this experience, "the violent take it by force" (Mat. 11:12). What He meant was that anyone who desires the experience must seek it out aggresively. In Luke the wording is "every man presseth into it" (Lk. 16:16). I think if you would study some of the material on our site, it would help you realize how vital this experience is. Thanks for writing Aaron and let me know if I can be of further help.
Sincerely,
Lary

A Lost Sheep Found

Question:
Lary, isnt every believer sealed at the moment he believes?"Now he which
stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath annoited us, is god; who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the spirits in our hearts"2 Cor.1:21-22). "In whom ye also trusted, after that ye believed,ye were sealed with that Holy spirit of promise, which is the earnest or our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possesion,unto the praise of his glory"(Eph. 1:13-14)"And grieve not the holy spirit of god,where by ye are sealed unto the day of redemption"Eph 4;30".Dont these scriptures plainly show that the sealing of the holy spirit is the common possesion of all believers? God Bless You, Aaron

Answer:
Hi Again Aaron,
True faith in Jesus results in one receiving the holy Ghost (Jn. 7:37-39; Acts 5:32). There is no such thing as RECEIVING the Spirit before being BAPTIZED with the Spirit with the evidence of speaking in tongues, not in the Bible. Man has tried to make many ways for himself that are apart from God's way, but that doesn't change God's truth. The holy Ghost is what washes us from our sins, sanctifies us and justifies us, and without it we are said to be "none of His" (I Cor. 6:11; Rom. 8:9).

Peter knew that the first gentiles received the Spirit, ONLY AFTER he heard
them "speak with tongues, and magnify God" (Acts 10:45,46). The Samaritans
experienced many things through faith in Jesus, but did not RECEIVE the holy Ghost until Peter and John came and prayed for them, at which time they obviously spoke in tongues, even though the scripture doesn't definitively state such (Acts 8:5-19). The disciples at Ephesus didn't even know what the holy Ghost was, but the Bible says they RECEIVED the Spirit when Paul laid hands on them, at which time they also spoke with other tongues (Acts 19:1-6). Aaron, these are not abstract examples, but rather they represent the God-established pattern of how one RECEIVES the Spirit of God.

The things that you wrote are true as long as one understands when he reads, that RECEIVING the Spirit of God is the same thing as being BAPTIZED with the Spirit of God with the evidence of speaking with other tongues. I hope that you will successfully seek out this glorious experience. Let me know if I can help further. I've left a few links that should help clear up this topic for you. I truly recommend a careful study of this material.
Sincerely,
Lary

Question:
Lary, I want to be baptized in the holy ghost with evidence in speaking in tongues, I pray for it a lot but I think it is a gift from God. I believe the baptism of the Holy Spirit is simultaneous with regeneration, as are also
the anointing, the sealing and the indwelling of the Holy spirit (see John3:3-8,1Cor 12:12-13; Rom6:3; Gal 3:27; 1 John 2:20-27; 2 Cor 1:21-22; Eph 1:13; 4:30).And in addition to all these we are commanded to be filled with spirit, which filling is not like the others, once for all, but should be often repeated. Indeed we are filled with the spirit continuously so far as we are yielded to Him. Lary will you please pray for me to receive this precious gift, as I desperately want it! God Bless, Aaron

Answer:
Hi Again Aaron,
Those were some really good scriptural references that you sent along. And as you stated, it is absolutely necessary to CONTINUE being refilled with the holy Ghost after initially being baptized or filled with it. Its not a one time and done deal. Jesus said that "he that ENDURETH till the end, the same shall be saved (Mat. 24:13). If you like, I would be glad to send you a couple of audio cassettes of testimonies of how people received the Spirit, or radio broadcasts, or prayer meetings/Bible studies, or even a video cassette of our TV ministry. If you're interested just send me a mailing address, and I'll get something together, as time allows. Thanks again for writing, and feel free to communicate anytime. I'll be praying for you to be able to come into this experience, and will have others doing the same. Don't give up!

Sincerely,
Lary

Answer:
Hi Aaron,
I meant to address what you mentioned about the holy Ghost baptism being a
gift. I would like to suggest reading from the Bible the following scriptures in the order that I have them. Notice the direct connection between "the gift," "the promise," "the holy Ghost," and "eternal life." Also I'll send something along soon that I feel will be helpful to you. I'm praying for you to be able to receive the Spirit baptism, so hang in there with determination. Another thing is to forget about the tongues, because they will come as a result of your heart making the right connection with God. A lot of people get the cart in front of the horse by anticipating speaking in tongues rather than focusing on drawing nigh unto Jesus.

Acts 2:38 (gift > promise)
Rom. 6:23 (gift > eternal life)
I Jn. 2:25 (promise > eternal life)
Acts 1:4,5 (promise > holy Ghost)
Acts 2:33 (promise > holy Ghost)
Gal. 3:14 (promise > faith > holy Ghost)
Jn. 4:10-14 (gift > living water > eternal life)
Jn. 7:37-39 (believing > living water > holy Ghost)

Its certain that we don't want to be deprived of the gift, or the promise, of eternal life.
Sincerely,
Lary

 

Page 3


 

Bro.Lary@gmail.com
Daniel~

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, ..."
(I Cor.12:13)


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